Saturday, February 2, 2008

Previous GATE Papers

ECE 2005 Solutions 1 ECE 2005 Solutions 2 EE 2005 Solutions
MECH - Topic wise Analysis of previous years papers

GATE 2006
ECE
CS
ME
EE
PY
IT
GATE 2007
ECE
CS
ME
EE
PY
IT

GATE 2005
ECE
CS
ME
EE
IT
PY
GATE 2004
ECE
CS
ME
EE
IT
PY
GATE 2003
ECE
CS
ME
EE
PY
GATE 2002
ECE
CS
ME
EE
PY
GATE 2001
ECE
CS
ME
EE
PY
GATE 2000
ECE
CS
ME
EE
PY
GATE 1999
ECE
CS
ME
EE
PY
GATE 1998
ECE
CS
ME
EE
PY
GATE 1997
ECE
CS
ME
EE
PY
GATE 1996
ECE
CS
ME
EE
PY
GATE 1995
ECE
CS
ME
EE
PY
GATE 1994
ECE
CS
ME
EE
PY
GATE 1993
ECE
CS
ME
EE
PY
GATE 1992
ECE
CS
ME
EE
PY
GATE 1991
ECE
CS
ME
EE
PY



Saturday, December 15, 2007

GATE Overview

GATE Overview
Overview for GATE

Many students may not be aware that there are several institutions in this country, offering specialized postgraduate programmes in various disciplines. Attractive scholarship / Assistantship for postgraduate courses in engineering / Technology? Architecture /Pharmacy at Engineering colleges / institutes in the country ,are available to those who qualify through GATE. Some Engineering colleges / institutes specify GATE as a mandatory qualification even for admission do students to post graduate programmes. The candidate is required to find the procedure of final selection and award of scholarship / Assistantship from the respective Institution to which the candidate seeks admission. GATE qualified candidates in Engineering subjects) will also be eligible for the award of junior research fellowship in CSIR Laboratories.

What is GATE ?

The Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering (GATE) is an all -India Examination conducted by the six Indian Institutes of Technology and Indian Institute of Science, Bangalore, on behalf of the National Coordinating Board - GATE, Ministry of Human Resources Development (MHRD), Government of India.From Freshersworld point of view we have tried our best to give you a clear picture of GATE.

Objective

To identify meritorious and motivated candidates for admission to Post Graduate Programmes in Engineering, Technology, Architecture and Pharmacy at the National level. To serve as benchmark for normalisation of the Undergraduate Engineering Education in the country.

Here is an opportunity for advanced engineering education in India. An M.E or M.Tech degree is a desirable qualification for our young engineers seeking a rewarding professional career. Engineering students, while in the final year of their degree course, spend considerable time in seeking an opening for studies in foreign universities.

GateGenie Help Desk

Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering(GATE) is an All-India Examination conducted by the seven Indian Institutes of Technology(IIT) and the Indian Institute of Science(IISc), Bangalore, on behalf of the National Coordinating Board - GATE, Department of Education, Ministry of Human Resources Development (MHRD), Government of India. Every year one of the IIT or IISc act as a coordinating institution.

The following is list of GATE coordinating IIT/IISc.

GATE Conducting IIT/IISc
GATE 2007 IIT Kharagpur
GATE 2005 IIT Bombay
GATE 2004 IIT Delhi
GATE 2003 IIT Madras
GATE 2002 IISc Banglore
GATE 2001 IIT Kanpur
GATE 2000 IIT Kharagpur
GATE 1999 IIT Bombay


Examination Details:

  1. The examination is a single paper of 3 hours duration and generally consists of
    Section A (Objective Type) which is of 75 marks and
    Section B (Problem Type) which is of 75 marks.
    Total: 150 marks.

  2. You have to opt for your subject and study as per the syllabus mentioned in the GATE brochure.

  3. The subjects of our interest are Computer Science and Engineering, Electronics & Communication Engineering., Electrical Engineering and Instrumentation Engineering. Other subjects are also available such as Mathematics, Physics, etc

  4. Generally a large number of students appear for the Computer Science subject in order to do a M.Tech in Computer Science.

  5. Old question papers are available in the shops.

  6. After publication of GATE results, students must apply to individual Institutes to get their application forms.

  7. Institutes advertise M.Tech admissions in leading newspapers from 1st April till end July. However some Institutes do not advertise and therefore students have to get the forms themselves.

  8. In the application forms, you have to mention your GATE score alongwith other details.

  9. The concerned Institute may conduct written test and/or interview for the purpose of admission.

  10. Results of qualified candidates in GATE will give All India Rank and indicate percentile score. For example, a percentile score of 99 means you are in the top 1% category of the candidates who appeared for GATE.

  11. Candidates who get less than 70 percentile get no score card.

  12. GATE scores are valid for 2 years. You may reappear the GATE exam if you are not satisfied with the earlier score and the new score (if better than the old one) will be used for admission purposes.

Important Dates:

Availability of GATE forms: October, 1st week

Last Date for filling up forms: November, 1st week

Exam Date: 2nd Sunday of February

Results: March 31st

Structure of GATE and GATE score

GATE Structure:


The GATE is held every year on the second Sunday of February, across the country in over 100 cities. At present nearly 60,000 students write GATE every year. Candidates can choose a single paper of 3 hours duration to appear in GATE from the discipline papers shown in the following Table.

Agricultural Engineering AG Mathematics MA
Architecture AR Mechanical Engineering ME
Civil Engineering CE Mining Engineering MN
Chemical Engineering CH Metallurgical Engineering MT
Computer Science & Engg. CS Physics PH
Chemistry CY Production & Industrial Engg. PI
Electronics & Comm. Engg. EC Pharmaceutical Sciences PY
Electrical Engineering EE Textile Engg.& Fibre Science TF
Geology & Geophysics GG Engineering Sciences XE
Instrumentation Engineering IN Life Sciences

Papers XE and XL are general in nature and comprise of the following sections:
Candidates appearing in XE or XL papers are required to answer

Three Sections, one compulsory as indicated below:

ENGINEERING SCIENCES(XE)

CODE

LIFE SCIENCES(XL)

CODE

Engg. Maths (Compulsory)

A

Chemistry (Compulsory)

I

Computational Science

B

Biochemistry

J

Electrical Sciences

C

Biotechnology

K

Fluid Mechanics

D

Botany

L

Materials Science

E

Microbiology

M

Solid Mechanics

F

Zoology

N

Statistics

G

Thermodynamics

H



GATE Score Card

  1. Score card will be sent only to the qualified candidates. No information will be sent to candidates who are not qualified.

  2. The GATE score card is a valuable document. Care should be taken to preserve it. Additional Score Cards, (upto a maximum of two) will be issued on payment basis only once.

  3. The Score Card cannot be treated as a proof of category.

  4. The score card of the Qualified Candidates will include GATE Score, Percentile Score and Rank.


i. GATE Score

The GATE SCORE of a candidate is a statistical performance index in the range 0 to 1000. It reflects the ability of a candidate, irrespective of the paper or year in which he/she has qualified. Candidates with same GATE SCORE from different disciplines and/or years can be considered to be of equal ability.

where,

m = marks obtained by the candidate.

a = average of marks of all candidates who appeared in the paper mentioned on this scorecard, in the current year.

s = standard deviation of marks of all candidates who appeared in the paper mentioned on this scorecard, in the current year.

K1 and K2 are determined respectively from the mean and standard deviation of marks of all candidates across all papers and years since GATE 2002.

A typical qualitative interpretation of the GATE SCORE, for example, can be as follows:

    • GATE Score Range Ability Level
      800 to 1000 Outstanding
      675 to 800 Excellent
      550 to 675 Very good
      425 to 550 Good
      300 to 425 Above average
      100 to 300 Average
      Below 100 Below average

  1. Percentile Score

    The percentile score is not the same as percentage of marks. The percentile score of a candidate shows what percentage of candidates, who appeared in the same paper in GATE 2005, scored less marks than him/her. It is calculated as follows: Let N be the total number of candidates appearing in that paper and nc be the number of candidates who have the same all India rank c in the same paper (there can be bunching at a given all India rank). Then all the candidates, whose all India rank is r, will have the same percentile score P, where

The percentile score in each paper is calculated as follows: Let N be the total number of candidates appearing in that paper, and nc be the number of candidates who have the same all India rank c in the same paper (there can be bunching at a given all India rank), then all the candidates, whose all India rank is r, will have the same percentile score P, where

P = {(no. of candidates securing marks less than the candidate concerned)/N}x100

  • The evaluation of the ORS is carried out by a computerized process using scanning machines, with utmost care. Requests for revaluation of the answer script and re-totaling of marks will not be entertained.

  • The GATE result and particulars of the qualified candidates will be made available to interested organizations (educational institutions, R and D laboratories, industries etc.) in India and abroad based on written request by the organization and on payment. Details can be obtained from GATE Chairmen of IITs / IISc.



GATE Pattern

The pattern of GATE examination has been CHANGED from 2005.

  • Main Papers

    The question paper will be fully objective type for a total of 150 marks divided into three groups:

    1. Group I: Question Numbers 1 to 30 (30 questions) will carry one mark each.

    2. Group II: Question numbers 31 to 80 (50 questions) will carry two marks each.

    3. Group III: Question Numbers 81a to 85b (10 questions) will carry two marks each. Each number in this series (81,82,83,84,85) will have two sub-questions (a & b). The answer to part 'b' will be linked to the correct answer to part 'a', as described below in Section (e)(vi).

  1. Each question will have four choices for the answer. Only one choice is correct.

  2. Wrong answers carry 25% negative marks in Q1 to Q80 and Q81a, 82a, 83a, 84a and 85a. Marks for correct answers to Q81b, 82b, 83b, 84b and 85b will be given only if the answer to the corresponding part 'a' is correct. However, Q81b, 82b, 83b, 84b and 85b will not carry any negative marks.

  3. Papers bearing the code AG, CE, CH, CS, EC, EE, IN, IT, ME, MN, MT, PI, TF will contain questions on Engineering Mathematics to the extent of 20 to 25 marks.

  4. The multiple choice objective test questions can be of the following type:

    1. Each choice containing a single stand-alone statement/phrase/data.

      Example:
      Q. The time independent Schrodinger equation of a system represents the conservation of the

      1. total binding energy of the system

      2. total potential energy of the system

      3. total kinetic energy of the system

      4. total energy of the system

    2. Each choice containing a combination of option codes.

      The question may be accompanied by four options P, Q, R, S and the choices may be a combination of these options. The candidate has to choose the right combination as the correct answer.

      Example:
      Q. The infra-red stretching frequency νco of
      (P) Mn(CO)6+ (Q) CO (R) H3B←CO (S) [V(CO)6]- follows the order

      1. P>R>S>Q

      2. S>P>R>Q

      3. Q>S>P>R

      4. R>Q>P>S

    3. Assertion[a]/Reason[r] type with the choices stating if [a]/[r] are True/False and/or stating if [r] is correct/incorrect reasoning of [a]

      Example:
      Q. Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r]

      Assertion: For a fully developed laminar flow in a circular pipe the average velocity is one half of the maximum velocity.

      Reason: The velocity for a fully developed laminar flow in a circular pipe varies linearly in the radial direction.

      1. Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]

      2. Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is not the correct reason for [a]

      3. Both [a] and [r] are false

      4. [a] is true but [r] is false

    4. Match items: Match all items in Column 1 with correct options from those given in Column 2 and choose the correct set of combinations from the choices A, B, C and D.

      Example:
      Q. Match the following and choose the correct combination

      Capital

      State

      P. Chennai

      1. Andhra Pradesh

      Q. Bangalore

      2. West Bengal

      R. Mumbai

      3. Rajasthan

      S. Kolkata

      4. Karnataka


      5. Tamil Nadu


      6. Maharashtra


      (A)

      (B)

      (C)

      (D)

      P - 1

      P - 5

      P - 5

      P - 4

      Q - 6

      Q - 4

      Q - 4

      Q - 5

      R - 4

      R - 3

      R - 6

      R - 6

      S - 5

      S - 2

      S - 2

      S - 2


    5. Common data based questions: Multiple questions may be linked to a common problem data, passage and the like. Two or three questions can be formed from the given common problem data. Each question is independent and its solution obtainable from the above problem data/passage directly. (Answer of the previous question is not required to solve the next question). Each question under this group will carry two marks.

      Example:
      Common data for Q. 78,79,80: The gas phase reaction, 2P + 4Q → 2R which is first order in P and first order in Q is to be carried out isothermally in a plug flow reactor. The entering volumetric flow rate is 2.5 dm3/min and the feed is equimolar in P and Q. The entering temperature and pressure are 727oC and 10 atm respectively. The specific reaction rate at this temperature is 4 dm3/gmol min and the activation energy is 15,000 cal/gmol.

      Q.78. What is the volumetric flow rate in dm3/min when the conversion of P is 25%?

      (A) 1.88 (B) 5.40 (C) 7.10 (D) 10.80

      Q.79. What is the rate of reaction in gmol/(dm3 min) when the conversion of P is 40%

      (A) 1.82 x 103 (B) 4.95 x 10-3 (C) 6.2 x 10-3 (D) 9.73 x 103

      Q.80. What is the value of the specific reaction rate constant in dm3/gmol min at 1227oC?

      (A) 17.68 (B) 22.32 (C) 49.60 (D) 59.75

    6. Linked answers question: The question will consist of a problem statement followed by two sub-questions (a) and (b) based on the problem statement. The solution to part (b) depends upon the answer to part (a). Each part (a) as well as (b) in such linked answer questions will carry two marks.

      Example:
      Statement for linked answer Q. 81a & 81b: A reversible Carnot engine operates between the actual heat input temperature of 1000 K and actual heat rejection temperature of 250 K. The ambient temperature is 200 K.

      Q.81a The efficiency of this engine will be

      A) 5% (B) 20% (C) 25% (D) 75%

      Q.81b The above engine is to provide the power output of 100 kW. The heat input required will be

      (A) 133.33 kW (B) 400 kW (C) 500 kW (D) 2000 kW

      In the above simplistic example, the calculation of heat input in Q.81b requires the value of efficiency calculated in Q.81a as the first step.

  • Structure of the XE/XL Paper Sections

    1. XE and XL papers contain a number of sections. Each Section is of 50 marks. Each Section will be fully objective type and the questions are divided into three groups.

      1. Group I: Question Numbers 1 to 10 (10 questions) will carry one mark each.

      2. Group II: Question numbers 11 to 26 (16 questions) will carry two marks each.

      3. Group III: Question Numbers 27a to 28b (4 questions) will carry two marks each. Each number in this series (27, 28) will have two subquestions (a & b). The solution to part 'b' will be linked to the correct answer to part 'a', as described above in (e) (vi).

    2. All questions have four choices with only one being correct.

    3. Wrong answers carry 25% negative marks in Q1 to Q26 and Q27a, 28a. Marks for correct answers to Q27b, 28b, will be given only if the answer to the corresponding part 'a' is correct. However, Q27b, 28b will not carry any negative marks.

    4. The types of multiple choice questions are the same as in the Main papers as described above in (e).